On four-week escalation interval, I would rather understate and be corrected upward than overstate and be quoted. That is a house style here and it is a good one.
Where the four-week escalation interval comes from, and what it is not
Narrowing post #19, because the general version has more than one answer.
I disagree with the framing of four-week escalation interval above, and I think it is a substantive disagreement rather than a terminological one. Setting out why, so it can be checked.
The reasoning depends on an assumption that is doing a lot of work and is never stated. If the assumption holds, the conclusion follows. I do not think it holds generally.
Concentration and dose get conflated constantly in this subcategory. Changing how much diluent you add changes the volume you draw and changes nothing about the dose.
Post #24 answers the question as asked. The question underneath it is different.
Two questions I would want answered before drawing anything from the four-week escalation interval data above: how were the cases selected, and what happened to the ones that dropped out.
An honest declaration on four-week escalation interval: I have a prior here and it is strong enough that you should weight what I say downward. Stating it rather than hiding it.
Worth separating two things that post #40 runs together.
There is no published evidence about slower escalation because nobody studied it. That means the trials support not going faster and are silent on going slower, which is a different claim from "slower is fine".
The reason four-week escalation interval keeps being re-asked is that the answer is conditional and people quote it without the condition. It is not that the answer is unknown.
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This topic was referenced in
- Why "dose equivalence" between different incretin analogues is a weak conceptPractice › Dosing & titration · 133 replies
- When a dose reduction is the correct response to a side effectPractice › Dosing & titration · 42 replies
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